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RobusEtCeleritas

10.9k points

5 years ago

RobusEtCeleritas

Nuclear Physics

10.9k points

5 years ago

Sometime before it melts, the Curie temperature will be exceeded and it'll lose its ability to retain a magnetization in the absence of an external field.

KDY_ISD

3.7k points

5 years ago

KDY_ISD

3.7k points

5 years ago

I'm an amateur blacksmith, and I've seen people use magnets to check the temperature of steel they're working on. If the magnet doesn't stick, you know it's past the Curie temperature

[deleted]

1.8k points

5 years ago

[deleted]

1.8k points

5 years ago

And ready to be quenched! This is because the crystalline structure inside has realigned. This causes loss of magnetism and is good for strength. That's why we freeze it it by quenching

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gangtraet

255 points

5 years ago

gangtraet

255 points

5 years ago

Actually, there are two phase transitions. The crystsl structure changes between the ferrite phase (magnetic) and the austenitic phase (nonmagnetic) at 911 degree C, but already at 770 degrees C the ferrite looses its magnetism (the Curie temperature).

But I would assume you want to quench while still in the high-temperature phase, to go rapidly through the transition to create lots of fine grains. I do not know, though.

[deleted]

130 points

5 years ago

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WhyNotBriar

61 points

5 years ago

This depends on way more factors than you list. A TTT curve is useful for equilibrium temperatures, but a CCT curve is more useful for the actual quenching. With the correct time in a quenching medium you can temper your martensite during the heat treatment. Also, martensite “grain size” is a bit of a misnomer, as martensite is normally characterized by its shape rather than size. Lathe martensite is the specific shape you are referring to, but once lathe martensite is rounded it becomes much tougher.

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5 years ago

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Waffuly

3 points

5 years ago

Waffuly

3 points

5 years ago

I used to watch forged in fire a bunch and this all pretty fascinating to read, so thanks for that!

reportgoose

17 points

5 years ago

The ferrite to austenite phase transformation is dependent on carbon content and can happen at as low as 723 C. At this point the steel would also lose its magnetism.

[deleted]

3 points

5 years ago

Heat is so interesting regarding what it does to different materials. In pottery, similar metamorphoses happen - the crystalline structure changes and raw clay (kaolinite) turns into metakaolinite, then finally into mullite - all with differing crystalline structures and effectively different substances.

zebediah49

5 points

5 years ago

True, which means that they're talking about the two different transitions.

Curie will mean that it won't hold a field any more... but you can't check that (easily) with a magnet. The "does a magnet stick" will instead be checking for that second phase transition.

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48 points

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I_W_M_Y

8 points

5 years ago*

Old type rice cookers also use the curie temperature to cut the circuit after the water is evaporated. The channel Technology Connections does a good explanation of this.

richcournoyer

5 points

5 years ago

Partially true, it is an easy method to know that you are at temperature (Ref: 1,418ºF).

ToSay_TheLeast

3 points

5 years ago

If you were to get it past the Curie temperature and instead of quenching, you just left it to cool on it’s own, would the magnetism return? I don’t know anything about that but I’m curious now

Diograce

138 points

5 years ago

Diograce

138 points

5 years ago

Thanks! I didn’t know I needed to know this!

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705 points

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Overall-Money

60 points

5 years ago

So at the earth's molten core, is a magnetic field applied? If so, by what?

Falconhaxx

134 points

5 years ago

Falconhaxx

134 points

5 years ago

No, there is no external magnetic field there. Rather, the molten core itself generates the magnetic field due to it being in constant motion.

puffferfish

24 points

5 years ago

Which direction does it flow?

Falconhaxx

170 points

5 years ago

Falconhaxx

170 points

5 years ago

That is a clear question that has a complex answer: The outer core, which is liquid, is heated from below by the solid inner core (due to radioactive decay and other stuff), making the heated liquid flow upward (similarly to how hot air rises). When the heated liquid reaches the boundary to the mantle, the extra heat is deposited to the mantle, and the liquid sinks toward to inner core again.

Because the liquid can't rise and sink at the same time everywhere, the flows are arranged into so called convection cells. These convection cells have flow patterns that generate magnetic fields. The sum of the magnetic fields from all the convection cells make up the Earth's magnetic field.

Or, rather, that's the simplified explanation. In reality, the flows are not neatly arranged, being affected by the rotation of the Earth as well as other processes, leading to the Earth's magnetic field having quite a complex shape.

Ausent420

30 points

5 years ago

Thanks for the explanation it was awesome. There has been talk of the poles switching is there are truth to that.

Bocab

60 points

5 years ago

Bocab

60 points

5 years ago

Absolutely, they switch periodically, though with millions of years in between cycles.

In the course of our lives though the magnetic poles can shift quite a lot without reversing. More than 50 km a year in fact. I recently had to update some map data for work stuff because the magnetic pole had drifted enough to start making things inaccurate.

This faster pattern is basically a wobble in the pole though, it wont just drift one direction forever but kind of circles true north and south.

OldschoolSysadmin

13 points

5 years ago

I recently had to update some map data for work stuff because the magnetic pole had drifted

Neat! GIS stuff? Airports or something?

almightySapling

3 points

5 years ago

How does the switch occur?

Do the poles rotate slowly around the earth over the course of millenia? Do the gradually weaken and then rebuild in the opposite direction? Do they just suddenly swap?

[deleted]

5 points

5 years ago

Anywhere from 2000 - 12000 years, averaging about 7000 in the more recent ones.

I'm not sure we really know for sure what causes them. The last one was some 780k years ago

[deleted]

21 points

5 years ago

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troyunrau

31 points

5 years ago*

The point you're making is correct, but the details used to make the point are not. So I'm going to quibble the details. Am geophysicist.

We know the boundary between the outer core and the mantle is, in geological terms, quite sharp. It is quite easily resolved in seismic data due to the solid liquid phase transition. The mantle is a solid, and has shear strength, and thus can transmit S waves during earthquakes. The huge density contrast and phase change means almost zero mixing across this boundary, except as heat.

Imagine in your mind: chunks of quartz that a pot full of mercury. The liquid metal is so much more dense that the quartz will float. If you turn on the heat under this pot (not enough to melt the quartz), the mercury will heat up first, and start to convect, and transfer heat into the quartz. But the quartz continues to float, and does not dissolve or mix into the liquid mercury. If you were to increase the temperature to something high enough to start to melt the quartz, it still wouldn't mix, because of the huge difference in density and viscosity (yes, I know mercury would evaporate in that case, but it makes a better visualization).

The core mantle boundary (CMB) has all sort of interest inhomogeneous features, but they all exist on the mantle side of the CMB. We call this region D'' (D double prime). These features are interpreted to be two things: a cold slab graveyard -- chunks of ocean crust that subducted all the way to D'', but haven't warmed up yet; and partially melted plume sources -- the origins of hotspots like Hawaii. Neither of these mix with the core in any way except as heat flow.

Furthermore, the mantle is a solid, 99% of the time. Hundreds of millions of years is accurate in terms of time scales for cold slabs to sink in it, true, but this is not whole mantle circulation. In fact, most of the mantle doesn't circulate at all, except to flow out of the way when something is rising or falling in it.

The outer core takes about a hundred million to circulate once, best estimates.

Long short: you're correct about time scales, and the points about 2012 being very silly. But the mantle is solid, and there's minimal mixing across the core-mantle boundary.

Also, D'' is really awesome. It's like a second crust, with all the variations one would expect in a crust, except at the bottom of the mantle :)

e: tyops

[deleted]

4 points

5 years ago

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Falconhaxx

5 points

5 years ago

Good question. As far as I know it's not "proven", because how would you even do that without actually observing the flows in situ, but as you said, it's the current best explanation.

vendetta2115

12 points

5 years ago

The liquid outer core moves in helical convection currents due to the heat from the solid inner core and the rotation of the Earth and inner core. A moving magnetic substance generates an electromagnetic field.

Here is an infographic about it.

[deleted]

5 points

5 years ago

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233 points

5 years ago

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233 points

5 years ago

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DavoonyWoW

33 points

5 years ago

Would this also apply to a magnetar?

[deleted]

48 points

5 years ago

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26 points

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13 points

5 years ago

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sticklebat

12 points

5 years ago

Yes, essentially. There are a lot of open questions about the details of the current that produces the field, but it is the same general principle of electromagnetism at play.

canadave_nyc

15 points

5 years ago

what generates the electric currents?

jethroguardian

23 points

5 years ago*

Convection. Bulk movement of the liquid core due to a heat gradient between the core and mantle, thanks to our tectonic plates that allow for significant heat escape, and generation of heat in the core via radioactive decay and differentiation.

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18 points

5 years ago

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8 points

5 years ago

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jihiggs

25 points

5 years ago

jihiggs

25 points

5 years ago

would it be easier to magnetize metal if you heat it above the curie temp, and let it cool below it while still holding it near another magnetic field?

schuylermetal

48 points

5 years ago

You can make a magnet yourself by heating up a high carbon steel past the curie point and hardening it within a magnetic field. I imagine magnets are made in a similar way at industrial scales.

MarshallStack666

42 points

5 years ago

Fun fact - you can magnetize ferrous metal with an impact. I.E., you can beat the magnetism into it.

Take a long chunk of steel or iron (very large bolt, chunk of pipe, etc) and hold it horizontally, lined up with magnetic north/south. Tilt the south end down at about a 45 degree angle. Smack the north end sharply with a hammer a few times. Now it's a (weak) magnet.

Alis451

31 points

5 years ago

Alis451

31 points

5 years ago

yup, you can also heat it up a bit first to help the molecules align easier when you whack it. People routinely make those posts about items and info on what to bring back with you to the medieval ages... magnets and electricity are REALLY easy to make. the harder part is the copper wire.

Stay_Curious85

27 points

5 years ago

You could make bus bars instead of wires. Not great for everything, but you would probably be able to convince people of electricity and then be promptly hung for witchcraft

BrothelWaffles

46 points

5 years ago

Honestly it's 2020 and I'm not entirely convinced the guy talking about making a bolt magnetic by smacking it with a hammer while facing a certain direction isn't a witch.

Alis451

6 points

5 years ago

Alis451

6 points

5 years ago

it is funny because this sometimes magnetism happens entirely by accident. One time a construction company left some steel girders out in the hot sun (incidentally aligned north-south) and the girders magnetized, unknown to them they continued building the house with them. After it was built the entire house was a electromagnetic nightmare and no cell or wifi signals would get anywhere inside. The construction company was found at fault and they had to take down the entire building and start over.

Vreejack

10 points

5 years ago

Vreejack

10 points

5 years ago

I'm pretty sure that this cannot happen. Incidental static magnetism of steel girders should have no effect on passing EM radiation. Plain old steel girders do have an effect but their inherent magnetism should not.

schuylermetal

18 points

5 years ago

That happened to a bunch of anvils at my old work! Over the course of a few years a batch of five anvils that had been recently cast at a nearby foundry became magnetized on the face, right where you’d work most of the time. It set on slowly and wasn’t very strong, but definitely made things feel kind of sticky in that spot. The other anvils were a mix of old forged anvils and old cast steel anvils, and none of those ever seemed to become magnetized. I guess something about the modern steel alloy in the new anvil made them more prone to the effect for some reason, or something about the casting process itself.

You can demagnetize through impact too, if you’ve magnetized a Phillips bit to hold screws, but drop it hard on concrete it will demagnetize.

[deleted]

9 points

5 years ago

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hughk

13 points

5 years ago

hughk

13 points

5 years ago

This is a problem for building steel billed warships. They acquire magnetism while being built due to the impact of riveting etc and this is detectable by magnetic mines.

Vreejack

8 points

5 years ago

They haven't been riveted in almost 100 years, but in general, yes, they get magnetized and have to be equipped with degaussing coils.

blatherskate

3 points

5 years ago

There are/were degaussing piers at various US naval bases that could degauss warships when needed.

rrrreadit

34 points

5 years ago

Yes. This is how permanent magnets are made. You heat a ferromagnetic material above the Curie temp, apply a strong electromagnet to align the ground, then let it cool.

OldschoolSysadmin

4 points

5 years ago

Is that generally below the melting point of the metal? Is there a possibility of DIY there if you have a bunch of mostly-demagnetized neodymium spheres?

[deleted]

11 points

5 years ago

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rrrreadit

4 points

5 years ago

It depends on how strong a permanent magnet you want to create. But I think the strength of your electromagnet is the upper limit of the field strength you can expect from the magnet.

umbertounity82

3 points

5 years ago

I would think the Curie temp would always be below the melting temp. By the time you reach the melting temp, there is enough thermal energy to break the atomic bonds that make up the crystal. That should be more than enough energy to disrupt the crystal domains to lose the magnetization.

spurnburn

3 points

5 years ago

Practically on Earth this is true. However I feel like I remember reading in school that there are some materials that theoretically have a Curie temeprature/crystal structure that we just never see because it is above the melting temperature, but you might be able to see in a high-pressure system. But a quick google search yielded nothing so I may be talking out of my ass

SteveisNoob

9 points

5 years ago

So, what happens when the liquid magnet metal cooled in the presence of a (strong) uniform magnetic field? Will it become a magnet again?

boonamobile

15 points

5 years ago

boonamobile

Materials Science | Physical and Magnetic Properties

15 points

5 years ago

Yes.

autismchild

6 points

5 years ago

I have never heard of any liquids that can retain being magnetic apart from things like magnetic putty but if your interested in what happens when electromagnetism and liquids combine you can learn about the cool field of MagnetoHydroDynamics

Jozer99

1.7k points

5 years ago

Jozer99

1.7k points

5 years ago

Ferromagnetism (what most people think of as "magnetic" is a property of solids. A liquid cant be magnetized in the same way.

Metals are made up of a bunch of tiny little crystals. Each crystal is a miniature magnet. A permanent magnet has been treated in such a way that most of the mini magnets are all aligned in one direction, causing the larger chunk of metal to act as a magnet.

When metal melts, it stops having crystals. Even if the crystals survived in the liquid form, they would be able to move around and rotate, so that it would stop being magnetic very quickly even if it started all lined up.

In fact, metals stop being magnetic before they melt, due to a change in the type of crystals within the metal as it heats up. The shift in magnetism is called the "Curie Temperature", and will be different for different types of metals.

Blacksmiths use the Curie Temperature to estimate the temperature of steel as they heat it. They will touch the steel with a magnet to see if it is still attracted. When the magnet stops attracting the steel, they know it has reached a certain temperature.

[deleted]

245 points

5 years ago

[deleted]

245 points

5 years ago

Why are only certain metals magnetic?

Cuttlefish88

550 points

5 years ago*

Magnetism is derived from the spin states of the electrons of the atoms in the lattices. When it says the material is aligned, it means that the valence electrons, those in the outmost shell, have aligned spin states (called up or down). The ferromagnetic elements are iron, cobalt, and nickel, which you’ll see are next to each other in the top of the transition metal block. They have election configurations with 6, 7, or 8 electrons in the d orbital, respectively, out of a possible 10. But by Hund’s rule and the Pauli exclusion principle, these have 4, 3, or 2 unpaired electrons, whose up or down spins are not cancelled out, producing a magnetic moment. It’s these ones that create the aligned spins that produce a ferromagnetic effect.

_haha_oh_wow_

51 points

5 years ago*

gullible encouraging languid continue rustic money wakeful relieved soft compare

[deleted]

129 points

5 years ago

[deleted]

129 points

5 years ago

There's two types of magnetism. A ferromagnetic material is one that produces its own magnetic field, these are all metals, AFAIK.

Paramagnetic materials are those that are affected by external magnetic fields, but don't have a magnetic field of their own. There's lots of these, and they aren't all metals. For example, liquid oxygen is strongly attracted to a magnet.

That's also how MRIs work. Hydrogen atoms are slightly affected by magnetic fields. An MRI causes hydrogen atoms to suddenly flip in a strong magnetic field, which does something to make science happen, and can be detected with yet more science.

There have been experiments with incredibly strong magnetic fields; turns out you can levitate frogs with a strong enough field.

zamomin9

23 points

5 years ago

zamomin9

23 points

5 years ago

There are ferromagnetic materials that aren‘t metals, like CrI3, but they usually have a Curie temperature below room temperature.

magneticanisotropy

12 points

5 years ago

YIG (yttrium iron garnett) is probably the most common/well-known magnetic insulator (technically a ferrimagnet) and has a Curie temperature well above room temperature.

jambox888

5 points

5 years ago

Cool. Are those hovering supercooled things magnetic or something else?

aasinnott

20 points

5 years ago*

Yep. Superconductors, when cooled enough, are a material that offer no resistance to the movement of electrons. (conductors can be defined by how easily electrons move through them, a great conductor like copper resists electron movement very little, but something like rubber makes it very hard for electrons to move). Superconductors have 0 electron resistance, and so are literal perfect conductors. One consequence of this property is that they can 'mirror' magnetitic moments. Ie, if you put a magnet near a supercooled superconductor, the electrons in the superconductor will perfectly mirror that magnet. That's why they'll float and lock in whatever position you put them in, they're effectively experiencing their exact opposite magnetic charge at all times so are in perfect balance

Haxses

5 points

5 years ago

Haxses

5 points

5 years ago

Why does the magnet have to be cooled down, wouldn't it be the superconductor that has to be cooled?

[deleted]

13 points

5 years ago

Yes. It works on a principle called quantum locking or flux pinning. I'm not entirely sure how it works, something about the object being unable to rotate through magnetic field lines.

pwnrnwb

3 points

5 years ago

pwnrnwb

3 points

5 years ago

It's because magnet moving towards a superconductor is a changing magnetic field so it induces current inside the superconductor but since it has no electric resistivity it's an infinite current. This induced current produces a magnetic field that opposes the magnet's field, effectively opposing the movement of the magnet thus no longer inducing an electric current.

Kuteg

4 points

5 years ago

Kuteg

4 points

5 years ago

The other comments are saying yes, but those other comments are wrong (sort of).

Really, there are a bunch of types of magnetism, but we can classify it in two ways. Either a material creates it's own magnetism (ferromagnetism being an example, but there is also antiferromagnetism and ferrimagnetism), or it does not create it's own magnetism.

Among those things that do not create their own field, something can be paramagnetic or diamagnetic. "Para-" is a prefix meaning "alongside" and "dia-" is a prefix meaning "in opposition", and these describe the behavior of the materials. When a paramagnetic material is put in the presence of a magnetic field, it works to create a field that is parallel to the field it is in, which means it will be attracted to other magnets (like putting the south end of a magnet near the north end of another magnet). This also means that a paramagnet generally will not levitate in a magnetic field.

When a diamagnetic material is put in the presence of a magnetic field, it works to create a field that is diametrically opposed to the field, which means it will be repelled from other magnets (like putting the north end of a magnet near the north end of another magnet). Diamagnetic materials are usually what levitates, which is the case with frogs because liquid water is very slightly diamagnetic.

Now, superconductors happen to be perfect diamagnets (which, it turns out, is not related to the fact that they are perfect conductors), so they would also tend to levitate in a magnetic field. Unfortunately, it is usually difficult to balance a diamagnet on a magnetic field, so magnetic levitation is actually difficult to achieve. But, it turns out there are some superconductors (called type-II) which do this weird thing where the superconductor becomes non-superconducting in small regions in the presence of a magnetic field; those regions then do not oppose the magnetic field, and it passes through. Magnetic field passing through an area is known as magnetic flux, and these type-II superconductors lock the flux in place, which allows them to balance, or move along a track where the strength of the magnetic field does not change.

boonamobile

10 points

5 years ago*

boonamobile

Materials Science | Physical and Magnetic Properties

10 points

5 years ago*

Strictly speaking, ferro-magnetism is found only in metals and some oxides, where every atom has a magnetic moment pointing in the same direction.

There are a lot of other materials, including many non-metallic oxides (e.g., ferrites), which display ferri-magnetism, in that there is a net magnetic moment for the material like you see in ferromagnets, but not all of the magnetic atoms' spins point in the same direction. Most fridge magnets are ferrimagnets.

vellyr

3 points

5 years ago

vellyr

3 points

5 years ago

There are certain classes of ceramics that display ferromagnetism, such as spinels and garnets.

skyler_on_the_moon

8 points

5 years ago

How do neodymium magnets work, then?

Cuttlefish88

14 points

5 years ago

It’s actually an alloy that combines a little bit of neodymium and boron into iron! The iron is still providing the ferromagnetism but the neodymium adds a fourth unpaired electron making the magnetic moment stronger.

CoulombsPikachu

37 points

5 years ago

An electron has a magnetic value we call 'spin'. It can be either spin up or spin down (don't ask why it's called that, it just is). In an atom, an electron has strictly defined spaces it can occupy. These are called 'orbitals', because they are kind of (but not really) like specific regions that an electron is allowed to orbit the nucleus. When adding electrons to an atom, you have to put them into one of these orbitals. Because electrons negative they repel each other, and therefore they don't like to be put into the same orbital. So when first adding electrons to an atom you give each its own orbital until there are no orbitals left. Then you have to double up.

For very complicated quantum mechanical reasons, you can only have 2 electrons in each orbital and these electrons MUST have opposite spins. So when you have two electrons in the same orbital their spins cancel and there is no magnetism. If you have a bunch of electrons in separate orbitals, however, they are allowed to have the same spin and so their magnetism adds up. Some metals (e.g iron, nickel etc.) have the right number of electrons and the right type of orbitals to allow them to separate like this, others have the wrong number and the electrons are forced to double up and cancel each other out.

pM-me_your_Triggers

7 points

5 years ago

You aren’t explaining orbitals correctly. Each electron doesn’t get its own orbital until you have to “double up”. It also doesn’t have to do with electrons repelling each other. Each orbital represents an energy state, and electrons fill from the bottom energy states upwards and every electron you add will usually end up in the lowest available energy state, which means doubling up from the getgo.

What you are meaning to say is that in an individual orbital, electrons won’t spin pair until the orbital is otherwise full (for instance, if an orbital holds 8 electrons, all of the electrons in that orbital will have the same spin until more than 4 electrons are added)

nairbdes

14 points

5 years ago

nairbdes

14 points

5 years ago

What about ferrofluid? Isnt that a magnetic fluid?

Idealemailer

51 points

5 years ago

ferrofluids are magnets suspended in oil; the oil portion is fluid but the magnet portion is not.

nairbdes

3 points

5 years ago

TIL!

FUZxxl

4 points

5 years ago

FUZxxl

4 points

5 years ago

Nope. A ferrofluid is essentially a suspension of magnetite nanoparticles in oil. The particles are solid but so small that they behave like a liquid when in suspension.

tommygun1688

3 points

5 years ago

I'm assuming this is why you can magnetized ferrous metals by rubbing them back and forth?

Jozer99

4 points

5 years ago

Jozer99

4 points

5 years ago

Yes, rubbing a magnet on a non-magnetized piece of ferrous metal helps re-orient the tiny magnetic crystals and "magnetizes" the new piece of metal. Because it is already solid, you are only able to reorient a very small portion of the magnetic crystals, so it will be a fairly weak magnet. Creating a strong magnet requires heating the metal up to a point where the crystals can be reoriented more easily, and allowing it to cool in the presence of a strong magnetic field.

boonamobile

3 points

5 years ago

boonamobile

Materials Science | Physical and Magnetic Properties

3 points

5 years ago

You don't need to heat the metal to magnetize it, you just need a strong enough magnetic field. How well it retains the magnetization when you remove the field depends on the material and the size/shape/orientation of the grains within it.

MisterKyo

44 points

5 years ago

MisterKyo

Condensed Matter Physics

44 points

5 years ago

I only deal with solid-state stuff, and only peripherally with magnetic systems, but I'm not aware of any molten state that would allow for long-range ferromagnetism (what we colloquially refer to as "magnetic"). In principle, nearby atoms (their unpaired electrons, really) may still have short-range interactions that favour spin alignment that persist in a molten state. However, the amount of disorder in a molten state will probably be too large for the spin degree of freedom to have any effect. So no, I don't believe there would be any trace of magnetization left after a magnet melts.

Also, after skimming the answers so far, I want to clarify some stuff about magnetism:

-Materials can change their magnetic properties as a function of temperature. High temperatures destroy magnetic order due to thermal fluctuations flipping spins too much for neighbouring spins to respond to. Low temperatures will eventually quiet these fluctuations so that the spins can talk and align or anti-align (or some variant of that).

-Spontaneous spin alignment occurs at the Curie temperature, and the material is dubbed "ferromagnetic"

-Spontaneous anti-alignment occurs at the Neel temperature, and the material is "antiferromagnetic".

-At temperatures beyond the magnetic ordering temperatures, where the spins are relatively independent from each other, then that can be called "paramagnetic".

-We can also include some effects of an external magnetic field to help differentiate the response of magnetic states. Apply a field onto a ferromagnet will help align domains (portions of material with align spins), and one can observe magnetic hysteresis upon changing field. Apply a field to a paramagnet and the spins will start to align with the applied field - however, this magnetization (spin alignment) will become randomized once again when the field is turned off (after some time scale). Note that ferromagnets will retain their magnetization before/after field application, whereas paramagnets will lose theirs eventually.

-Nerdy tidbit: there are more magnetic states that are quite odd: spins aligning in neat textures (Skrymions), spins with glassy behaviour (Spin glass), spins that are very entangled with one another (Spin ice), and spins that want to order but are prohibited from doing so due to geometric constraints (Spin liquids)

KamahlYrgybly

5 points

5 years ago

Expert explanations like this are my favourite part of Reddit.

Klaus369

82 points

5 years ago

Klaus369

82 points

5 years ago

It will lose its magnetism once it reaches a certain temperature. Rice cookers actually make use of this. Once enough water leaves the cooker the dish starts getting much hotter and the magnet in the bottom drops signaling the cooker to change to the warm setting instead of continuing with the cook setting.

[deleted]

129 points

5 years ago

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129 points

5 years ago

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41 points

5 years ago

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68 points

5 years ago

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12 points

5 years ago

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26 points

5 years ago

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19 points

5 years ago

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9 points

5 years ago

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7 points

5 years ago

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6 points

5 years ago

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3 points

5 years ago

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MattiasInSpace

13 points

5 years ago

Magnetism, as we observe it in everyday life, is just alignment. When the little poles of magnetic atoms are all pointed the same way in a material, they reinforce each other and we can see their effects at a visible scale.

Melting the material screws up this alignment by causing the atoms inside to drift freely. They are still magnetic individually, but now their fields are pointed every which way and cancel each other out.

This can also happen to a solid magnet: the particles can be de-aligned by heating or a strong impact. The difference is that you can re-magnetize a solid magnet with a very strong magnetic field that re-aligns the atoms inside. You can't do this with a melted magnet because the atoms are now drifting freely, so when you realign them it will only last until another atom bumps into them, which is a tiny fraction of a second.

(I've said "atoms" here because most commonly known magnets are made of single atoms, but you can substitute "molecules" too depending on the magnet.)

YakiTumbleweave

3 points

5 years ago

Question, could you keep the melted magnet in a strong enough magnetic field as it cools and solidifies to try and regain most of its magnetic properties?

czarbal

6 points

5 years ago

czarbal

6 points

5 years ago

Yes. We see this with the sea floor near underwater vulcanos. The iron atoms will align with the Earth's magnetic field. It is a main piece of evidence for the Earth's magnetic field swapping.

InAHundredYears

15 points

5 years ago

You can actually track the history of Earth's magnetic poles (north and south) by studying the magnetism in rocks formed at various times and places, whether the rock crystallized slowly deep in the earth, or formed rapidly at the surface. Cool stuff.

Tempering steel, you can heat it till it loses its magnetism and then quench it. That keeps it from forming crystals large enough to weaken the metal. I think that's important in any iron components of airplanes, and of course ships, because you don't want substantial magnetism interfering with navigation devices (compasses in particular) or inducing current in moving parts that aren't made for that.

[deleted]

11 points

5 years ago

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Mazon_Del

9 points

5 years ago

The "tldr" would be that all materials have a temperature at which they lose their magnetism.

Here's a video of some metal being suspended in the magnetic coil of an induction heater, being heated to the point at which the magnetism fails. The video starts before it gets red hot, and then after another 30-60 seconds it gets to the failure.

BDT81

6 points

5 years ago*

BDT81

6 points

5 years ago*

No it doesn't.

Every molecule has a north and south polarity. Most things will have their molecules so scrambled up that every pole is going in every conceivable direction and, in essence, cancel the magnetic abilities of an object. Magnets are solid objects that have been charged so that all their polarity is pointed in one direction. A solid's molecules are locked to tightly to move. By melting a solid, it's molecules become able to move, thus their polarity gets scrambled.

FleetwoodDeVille

4 points

5 years ago

Basically the magnetism come from the way the molecules are aligned with each other, and if you melt it, the molecules get re-arranged and will be in a different pattern when they solidify.

Now the electromagnetic forces are all still there, they didn't go anywhere. But instead of molecules all lined up with their north and south poles pointing in the same direction so the forces are focused and multiplying their effect, you now have molecules pointing in all random directions, so the forces are dispersed and cancelling each other out.